For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. (1 Cor 14:2)
If it is true, as they say, that speaking in tongues is just speaking a foreign language, such as Chinese, Swahili, etcetera, then that scripture paraphrased to conform to their theology would read like this:
“For he that speaketh in a foreign language speaketh not unto men, for no man understands him… he speaketh mysteries.”
What’s the most obvious error with the theology that says speaking in tongues is merely speaking the known languages? Chinese, Swahili, etcetera, and other foreign languages have millions of people who understand them. Speaking in tongues is speech that no one understands. Secondly, if speaking in tongues is speaking a known language, then the gift of interpretation of tongues would be redundant. There would be no need to interpret a language people already understand.
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